(no subject)
Jul. 16th, 2020 05:05 pmCheck my math?
You flip a coin until it comes up tails. If you get tails immediately, you win $1. If you get one head and then lose on the second round, you win $2. If you get (n-1) heads and lose on the nth round, you win $ 2^(n-1).
Probability of you losing on the first round is 1/2. Probability of you losing on the nth round is 2^-n. Expected value of W (how much you win in USD) is therefore 1/2 + 2*1/4 + ... + 2^(n-1)*2*(^-n) + ... which is a sum of infinitely many terms all equal to 1/2. So the expected value of how much you win is infinite. Is that correct?
(this is not a puzzle or anything, I'm fairly confident I'm right but could be making a mistake)
You flip a coin until it comes up tails. If you get tails immediately, you win $1. If you get one head and then lose on the second round, you win $2. If you get (n-1) heads and lose on the nth round, you win $ 2^(n-1).
Probability of you losing on the first round is 1/2. Probability of you losing on the nth round is 2^-n. Expected value of W (how much you win in USD) is therefore 1/2 + 2*1/4 + ... + 2^(n-1)*2*(^-n) + ... which is a sum of infinitely many terms all equal to 1/2. So the expected value of how much you win is infinite. Is that correct?
(this is not a puzzle or anything, I'm fairly confident I'm right but could be making a mistake)
no subject
Date: 2020-07-16 11:32 pm (UTC)"Re the betting strategy. It is a well known idea sometimes called the martingale strategy. It is a really good example of convergence problems in probability which are complex. In this case the flaw (as a practical betting strategy if you imagine doubling your bets each time you lose) is that you need an infinite reservoir of funds. Any cap, however large, breaks it."
Which tl:drs to "yes"
no subject
Date: 2020-07-17 12:41 am (UTC)